- A contradiction to my theory of dream produced by another of my women patients (the cleverest of all my dreamers) was resolved more simply, but upon the same pattern: namely that the nonfulfillment of one wish meant the fulfillment of another.
- One day I had been explaining to her that dreams are fulfillments of wishes. Next day she brought me a dream in which she was traveling down with her mother-in-law to the place in the country where they were to spend their holidays together. Now I knew that she had violently rebelled against the idea of spending the summer near her mother-in-law and that a few days earlier she had successfully avoided the propinquity she dreaded by engaging rooms in a far distant resort. And now her dream had undone the solution she had wished for; was not this the sharpest contradiction of my theory that in dreams wishes are fulfilled?
- No doubt; and it was only necessary to follow the dreams logical consequence in order to arrive at its interpretation. The dream showed that I was wrong. Thus it was her wish that I might be wrong, and her dream showed that wish fulfilled (italics original). Sigmund Freud, The Interpretations of Dreams (New York: Avon, 1966)
Tuesday, August 20, 2013
Freud gets out of jail again
Freud was a great and tremendously interesting writer, but he could be pretty slippery. Below is a nice example:
Saturday, August 10, 2013
Morality and Money
I came upon these comments in a notebook. They were written some time ago, but still seem relevant:
Money has always provoked moral debates in which its
capacity to corrupt plays a key role. However, over the past forty years or so
this kind of debate has itself been corrupted. Ideas that created money’s
reprehensible image seem to have been either abandoned or turned on their head.
Unfettered pursuit of money simply for its own sake, exclusive use of monetary sums to calibrate values and social status, the flaunting of wealthy attributes, conspicuous consumption of luxury goods, vast disparities in both assets and income as between individuals within the same community, avid avoidance of taxes, and the assumption of large debt are somehow no longer obvious causes for moral concern.
Unfettered pursuit of money simply for its own sake, exclusive use of monetary sums to calibrate values and social status, the flaunting of wealthy attributes, conspicuous consumption of luxury goods, vast disparities in both assets and income as between individuals within the same community, avid avoidance of taxes, and the assumption of large debt are somehow no longer obvious causes for moral concern.
“Somehow” is a vague term. But, ambiguity is appropriate here. For it is difficult to pin down when and why such
sea change in moral perception occurred. One of the main reasons for this is
that the process of uncoupling of money from morality has been deeply obscured by the
fog of financial innovation. It is tempting, therefore, to put the causal blame
on finance theory, and that insidious constellation of views has certainly been
highly influential. However, to do this would be to invoke a separation between
theory and practice that does not exist. It is a great irony that the
longstanding leftist project of aligning theory with practice has already been
accomplished by what can best be called, with still further irony, the finance
community. But, what is this community?
It is a loose collection of
financial institutions and the clients they are supposed to serve. This is held
together by economic and political beliefs that yield both a sense of immunity
to ordinary moral scrutiny and, strangely, a sense of moral accomplishment in
being able to do the very things that such immunity allows.
Friday, August 2, 2013
The Sufficiency of Relaxed, Low Key, Natural Ontology
I have been reading Sellars' Naturalism and Ontology. The discussion veers between the direct and the oblique. This leaves me wondering whether a direct Wittgensteinian approach would be sufficient. Consider the ontological confusions concerning attributes.
How are we to explain "Yes, there are attributes" when it is voiced in response to a question like "Are there attributes?" (where the person asking, 99.999% of the time it's going to be a philosopher, is fishing for possible commitments to abstract objects or some such)? Can we not simply respond: "If we are able to attach a practical sense to "there are attributes" (meaning we know what to do with the phrase - can fit it into intelligible contexts, put it to communicative use, and so forth), then we need not invoke ontological talk and consequent puzzles about what it is for an attribute to exist, etc."?
Isn't the temptation to resist this sub-philosophical approach one that conflates reluctance to indulge in certain imaginative extrapolations (e.g. one imagines attributes floating around in metaphysical space waiting to get hooked up to something appropriate) with a supposed limitation of intelligence, whereas, clearly, intelligent insight is required to see that such imaginative extravagances are redundant - rather as one realises that angels are not real beings and then automatically feels relieved of any need to imagine what they look like, where they reside, and so on?
But then, can we not apply this to "there are infinities"? How does that square with my previous posting? Is it simply that we can again talk about infinities without dragging in the imagined realist underpinnings?
How are we to explain "Yes, there are attributes" when it is voiced in response to a question like "Are there attributes?" (where the person asking, 99.999% of the time it's going to be a philosopher, is fishing for possible commitments to abstract objects or some such)? Can we not simply respond: "If we are able to attach a practical sense to "there are attributes" (meaning we know what to do with the phrase - can fit it into intelligible contexts, put it to communicative use, and so forth), then we need not invoke ontological talk and consequent puzzles about what it is for an attribute to exist, etc."?
Isn't the temptation to resist this sub-philosophical approach one that conflates reluctance to indulge in certain imaginative extrapolations (e.g. one imagines attributes floating around in metaphysical space waiting to get hooked up to something appropriate) with a supposed limitation of intelligence, whereas, clearly, intelligent insight is required to see that such imaginative extravagances are redundant - rather as one realises that angels are not real beings and then automatically feels relieved of any need to imagine what they look like, where they reside, and so on?
But then, can we not apply this to "there are infinities"? How does that square with my previous posting? Is it simply that we can again talk about infinities without dragging in the imagined realist underpinnings?
Monday, July 15, 2013
Deeper into insidious realism
A real realist thought: there are no infinities.
Another thought about this thought: if x supposedly has the characteristic of being infinite, then x does not exist.
Supposition behind this: all entities must have finite boundaries.
What is the status of such remarks?
In the light of them, can we interpret "infinite" in ways that do not have existence implications - e.g. "the series 1,2,3,..... is infinite" means that there is no procedure for establishing an end point, and no more than that? But then, do we not need to avoid the temptation to think "this is what 'infinite' really means"? Why would there be such a temptation if we were immune to the attractions of insidious realism and could use "really" innocuously?
Logic and language: how crude the discussion of the relationship here has so often been. Is logic necessarily an extension of ordinary/natural language - so that it cannot have the autonomy required for it to serve as an independent means of clarifying/reforming such language? If it is an extension, what is wrong with the notion of language turning back on itself to clean itself up?
Imagine a professor kicks off a lecture a by putting a long string of unknown symbols on the blackboard, then, for whatever reason, makes no effort to explain their significance. Could sense be made of them without embedding them in some natural language narrative? If not, does this tell us something about the primacy of language? Could logical notation attain a level of autonomy such that it could be displayed (written/spoken) to purposeful effect absent any natural language contribution, and without the prospect of it ever being translated? Could sense be made here just by linking the symbols involved with other symbols? Could the border be crossed over into mathematics? Could someone get by speaking only mathematics?
Another thought about this thought: if x supposedly has the characteristic of being infinite, then x does not exist.
Supposition behind this: all entities must have finite boundaries.
What is the status of such remarks?
In the light of them, can we interpret "infinite" in ways that do not have existence implications - e.g. "the series 1,2,3,..... is infinite" means that there is no procedure for establishing an end point, and no more than that? But then, do we not need to avoid the temptation to think "this is what 'infinite' really means"? Why would there be such a temptation if we were immune to the attractions of insidious realism and could use "really" innocuously?
Logic and language: how crude the discussion of the relationship here has so often been. Is logic necessarily an extension of ordinary/natural language - so that it cannot have the autonomy required for it to serve as an independent means of clarifying/reforming such language? If it is an extension, what is wrong with the notion of language turning back on itself to clean itself up?
Imagine a professor kicks off a lecture a by putting a long string of unknown symbols on the blackboard, then, for whatever reason, makes no effort to explain their significance. Could sense be made of them without embedding them in some natural language narrative? If not, does this tell us something about the primacy of language? Could logical notation attain a level of autonomy such that it could be displayed (written/spoken) to purposeful effect absent any natural language contribution, and without the prospect of it ever being translated? Could sense be made here just by linking the symbols involved with other symbols? Could the border be crossed over into mathematics? Could someone get by speaking only mathematics?
Tuesday, July 9, 2013
Insidious realism again: back to some preliminaries
What makes the prospect of insidious realism so enticing? Is it that we find the idea of a metaphysical space, a place that is only constrained by logic, so attractive? But, why does such an idea tend to get a grip on us? Do we somehow feel we need some such space where, or so we imagine, we can park things like the members of infinite sets?
Wednesday, June 5, 2013
Insidious Realism
What do I mean by 'insidious realism'? The phrase is intended to refer to certain kinds of realist assumptions that lurk all over the place in philosophy. Wittgenstein was extremely good at sniffing them out, and even better at dismantling the imaginary pictures that encourage them. Think, for example, of his various assaults on the platonic imaginings that infect philosophical accounts of mathematics. Though here, it might be better to speak of imaginary, imaginary pictures because we our imaginations cannot conjure up pictures of, say, an infinite series of numbers. But, more next time!
Monday, May 6, 2013
Returning
I have taken some time out to pursue some research and progress a number of publishing projects, but I will be blogging again shortly. One of the topics that I might well explore concerns an insidious form of realism that pervades a great deal of modern philosophy. Consider the tacit assumption that linguistic phenomena - concepts, word meanings, etc. - have a real existence independently of social practices.
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